Suppose $f$ is continuous and $f\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)=\frac{f(x)+f(y)}{2}$. Can we claim that $f(x)=kx$?
What if $f$ only satisfy $f(x)=\frac{f\left(\frac{2}{3}x\right)+f\left(\frac{4}{3}x\right)}{2}$?
This functional equation was called Jensen's equation on wiki, but there is no further discussion about it
No (for the first equation).
But we can claim $f(x)=ax+b$ (and all functions of the form satisfy the equation).
Let $f$ be any function satisfying the functional equation. Then this remains true if we replace $f$ with $x\mapsto f(x)-f(0)-x(f(1)-f(0))$, i.e., we may assume wlog. that $f(0)=f(1)=0$. Let $S=\{\,x\in \Bbb R\mid f(x)=0\,\}$. So far we have $0\in S$, $1\in S$. Also, $x\in S\iff \frac x2\in S$. Using that, if two of $x,y,x+y$ are in $S$, then so is the third. It follows that $S$ is a dense subgroup of $\Bbb R$. By continuity of $f$, $S=\Bbb R$.
The answer is also "No" for the second question, but for different reasons: There are some solutions that are by far not of the given form. The simplest "unusual" solution is $f(x)=|x|$.