Problem as in the title, where $p$ is prime. I know that it has to be cyclic, and I have proved that it’s $C_1$ iff $p\equiv 1 \pmod 5$. The full answer that, and $C_2$ if $p\equiv 4 \pmod 5$, and $C_4$ if $p\equiv 2,3\pmod 5$.
How can I prove the latter two cases? I also know that this is equivalent to finding when $x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1$ is irreducible.
The polynomial $f=x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1$ is irreducible over $\Bbb F_p$ if $p\not\equiv \pm 1\bmod 5$ with $p\neq 5$. The proof goes as follows. Note that $$ x^5 −1 = (x−1)(x^4 +x^3 +x^2 +x+1). $$ Any root of $f=0$ has order $5$ or $1$ (in a splitting field). Only the identity has order $1$. If $f$ had a linear factor in $\Bbb F_p[x]$, then $f=0$ had a root in $\Bbb F_p$. Since $1+1+1+1+1\neq 0$, $1$ is not a root, so that any possible root must have order $5$. But the order of $\Bbb F_p^*$ is $p-1$, which is not divisible by $5$, so there is no root in the base field $\Bbb F_p$.
If $f$ had an irreducible quadratic factor $q$ in $\Bbb F_p[x]$, then $f=0$ would have a root in a quadratic extension $K$ of $\Bbb F_p$. Since $[K : \Bbb F_p] = 2$, the field $K$ has $p^2$ elements, and $K^*$ has $p^2 −1=(p−1)(p+1)$ elements. By Lagrange, the order of any element of $K^*$ is a divisor of $p^2 − 1$, but $5$ does not divide $p^2 − 1$, so there is no element in $K$ of order 5. That is, there is no quadratic irreducible factor.
It follows that $f$ is irreducible.