How would you show that $(-1)!$ is infinite? I think you need to use the gamma function but I'm not entirely sure because I don't think the gamma function works for negative reals
2026-03-26 06:17:30.1774505850
On
Gamma function $(-1)!$
381 Views Asked by user190290 https://math.techqa.club/user/user190290/detail At
3
There are 3 best solutions below
3
On
One needs two conditions for the factorial:
$n!=n(n-1)!$
$1!=1$
So it becomes clear that
$$1!=1\times0!\implies0!=1$$
$$0!=0\times(-1)!\implies(-1)!=1/0\to\pm\infty$$
Anytime a division by $0$ occurs, the factorial (and the gamma function) diverge to $\pm\infty$. This occurs at the negative integers.
The gamma function, on the other hand, does not diverge over the negative reals (except at the negative integers). Examine that $\Gamma(-1/2)=-2\sqrt\pi$, for example.
Hint. One may recall that $$ \int_0^\infty u^se^{-u}\:du=\Gamma(s+1),\quad s>-1. \tag1 $$ Then, integrating by parts, one gets $$ \Gamma(s+1)=s\:\Gamma(s),\qquad s>0, \tag2 $$ giving $$ \Gamma(s)=\frac{\Gamma(s+1)}s,\qquad s>0, $$ and, as $s \to 0^+$, $$ \Gamma(s)\sim\frac1s $$ yielding $$ \lim_{s \to 0^+}\Gamma(s)=+\infty $$ Then, if one defines $'(-1)!'$ as $'\Gamma(0)'=\lim_{s \to 0^+}\Gamma(s)$ , one obtains the announced result.