First I would like introduce my problem ! There is an easy way to solve this one :
Find the value of $$ \inf_{(a,b)\in \mathbb{R}^2} \int_0^1 (t^2-at-b)^2 dt $$ and precise for which values $a$ and $b$ it is reaching.
Well by considering this dot product for two polynoms in $\mathbb{R}[X]^2$, $P$ and $Q$
$$ (P|Q)=\int_0^1 P(t)Q(t)dt $$
By Gram-Schimdt process we find that
$$ \inf_{(a,b)\in \mathbb{R}^2} \int_0^1 (t^2-at-b)^2 dt= \int_0^1 \left(t^2-t+\frac{1}{6}\right)^2 dt =\frac{1}{180} $$
Well I'm capable to find this in less 20 minutes with a pen and a papper, now imagine we want to know the value of :
$$ \inf_{(a_k)\in \mathbb{R}^n} \int_0^1 \left(t^n-\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} a_k \cdot t^k\right)^2 dt $$
Have you got any idea to solve this one for $n=100$ by example without computer and also find if it exist is limit when $n$ comes to infinity ?
You can write the polynomial in the integral in the orthogonal basis of (shifted) Legendre polynomials: $$ t^n-\sum_{i=0}^{n-1} a_i t^i = \sum_{i=0}^n c_i \cdot \bar{P}_i(t). $$ We will need that the coefficient of $\overline{P}_k$ is $\frac{2^k\cdot(2k-1)!!}{k!}$ and $\int_0^1 \overline{P}_k=\frac1{2k+1}$.
The leading coefficient enforces $c_n=\frac{n!}{2^n\cdot (2n-1)!!}$; the remaining coefficients $c_0,\ldots,c_{n-1}$ are free.
From the orthogonality we have $$ \int_0^n \left(\sum_{i=0}^n c_i\bar{P}_i(t)\right)^2 dt = \sum_{i=0}^n |c_i|^2\int_0^n \big(\bar{P}_i(t)\big)^2 dt \\ \ge |c_n|^2\int_0^n \big(\bar{P}_n(t)\big)^2 dt = \left(\frac{n!}{2^n\cdot (2n-1)!!}\right)^2 \cdot \frac1{2n+1} = \frac{(n!)^2}{4^n\cdot (2n-1)!!\cdot (2n+1)!!}. $$ The minimum is attained when $c_0=c_1=\ldots=c_{n-1}=0$.
Therefore, the minimum is $$ \frac{(n!)^2}{4^n\cdot (2n-1)!!\cdot (2n+1)!!} . $$
The minimum is attained when $$ t^n-\sum_{i=0}^{n-1} a_i t^i = c_n \overline{P}_n(t) = \frac{n!}{(2n)!} \cdot \big(x^n(1-x)^n\big)^{(n)}, $$ so $$ a_i = \frac{n!}{(2n)!} \cdot (-1)^{n-i+1}\binom{n}{i} (i+1)(i+2)\ldots(i+n). $$