Generalization of the root of a number

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Given that the $n$-th root is defined as follows$$ {\sqrt[n]a} = a^{1/n}$$ Can we infer that n can be irrational, negative or even imaginary? Usually we mean the square root ($n=2$) and then the third root ($n=3$) but is there no reason to think that there could not be $n=2.1$ for example, and that root would be defined as follows:

$$ {\sqrt[2.1]a} = a^{1/2.1}.$$

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Of course the notation is valid. However one must be careful that notation is clear, and I fear something like $$\sqrt[\sqrt 2]2$$ is not as clear as $$2^\frac{1}{\sqrt 2}$$

So, while valid, it's rather clunky in my opinion.

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Answer has been editted.

First and foremost - notation such as ${\sqrt[2.1]{a}}$, while clunky, is perfectly understandable. There is nothing technically wrong with it. It's just a bit "messy". It's important, however, that we understand what is meant by expressions such as ${a^{\frac{1}{n}}}$, or indeed ${\sqrt[n]{a}}$.

For any positive integer ${n}$, we know that ${a^n}$ is defined as repeated multiplication. For example, ${a^3=a\times a\times a}$. A little thought shows this has the property

$${a^{b}a^{c}=a^{b+c}}$$

(for any integers ${b,c \in \mathbb{N}}$). From this property, we can actually extend the definition of ${a^{n}}$ to also cover powers of the form ${a^{\frac{1}{n}}, n \in \mathbb{N}}$, such as ${a^{\frac{1}{2}}}$. It's any number that satisfies:

$${a^{\frac{1}{2}}a^{\frac{1}{2}}=a^{\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}}=a^1=a}$$

In the case of ${a^{\frac{1}{3}}}$, it's any number that satisfies

$${a^{\frac{1}{3}}a^{\frac{1}{3}}a^{\frac{1}{3}}=a^{\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}}=a^1=a}$$

The problem is, this number need not actually be unique. In the case of ${n=2}$, in fact we can find a concrete example. When we talk about ${4^{\frac{1}{2}}}$, do you mean ${2}$ or ${-2}$? Since both ${2\times 2=4}$, and ${(-2)\times (-2)=4}$. This is where ${\sqrt{a}}$ and ${a^{\frac{1}{2}}}$ differs slightly in typical usage; ${\sqrt{a}}$ by tradition is the positive real value that satisfies the property (also called the "principle value"), and so ${\sqrt{4}=2}$ is uncontroversial, and is accepted. Although ${a^{\frac{1}{2}}}$ can be used to mean "the set of all values that satisfy the property ${a^{\frac{1}{2}}a^{\frac{1}{2}}=a}$", in which we are no longer necessarily talking about a single value.

You may think we are in the clear for ${a^{\frac{1}{3}}}$; since there's only one real value. But of course, we can take things to the complex plane, in which there will be more numbers that satisfy ${a^{\frac{1}{3}}a^{\frac{1}{3}}a^{\frac{1}{3}}=a}$ (two more, in fact).

Ultimately, what notation you accept and use is up to you. But typically, ${\sqrt[n]{a}}$ isn't used to encapsulate all possible answers, only the principle one.

Anyways, we can continue extending. A bit more thought shows for integers ${b,c \in \mathbb{N}}$ we have

$${(a^{b})^{c}=a^{bc}=(a^{c})^{b}}$$

And so further extending, we have for any rational number ${\frac{p}{q}}$ (which ${2.1}$ is, for example), you can simply write

$${a^{\frac{p}{q}}=\left(a^{\frac{1}{q}}\right)^{p}}$$

Again, this doesn't need to be a single value, and could ultimately refer to a set of solutions!

Now, extending for irrational numbers. To calculate ${a^k}$ for some irrational quantity ${k}$, we use rational approximations of $k$ and take the principle values (so we are dealing with positive real numbers). In fact, if we have a series of rational approximations ${p_n}$ such that ${p_n\rightarrow k}$ where ${k}$ is irrational, by the continuity of ${y=a^{x}}$ over the reals we can define

$${a^{k}=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}a^{p_n}}$$

(and in fact, you can always define such a sequence. For example, consider ${\pi_n}$ as a sequence of rational approximations for $\pi$. You could define ${\pi_1=\frac{3}{1}}$, ${\pi_2=\frac{31}{10}}$, ${\pi_3=\frac{314}{100}}$... by construction, this will converge to ${\pi}$, but ${\pi_n}$ is rational ${\forall\ n \in \mathbb{N}}$).

For negative numbers, well ${a^{-n}=\frac{1}{a^{n}}}$. Why this? Well, we typically use ${a^{0}=1}$ (unless ${a=0}$, in which case it's undefined - but that's a completely different discussion. You can read more here https://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/questionCorner/powerof0.html), and so it makes sense that ${a^{-n}a^{n}=a^{n-n}=a^{0}=1}$ and so ${a^{-n}=\frac{1}{a^n}}$.

For imaginary numbers, this is where papa Euler comes in. Using his formula ${e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)}$, it's possible to define complex exponentiation (I won't go into detail for this here, since this post is already long enough - but I think it's helpful to know how we actually can extend powers to the complex plane).