Geometry Question: A property of a convex polyhedron.

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I'm trying to interpret a verified solution for the following problem.

Show that $v_3+f_3>0$. Here, $v_n$ denotes the number of vertices of a convex polyhedron that meet with $n$ edges, and $f_n$ denotes the number of faces that have $n$ edges.

The solution that I'm reading uses the property that the sum of angles (between two consecutive edges) around any vertex is less than $2\pi$, and it proceeds as follows.

Let $F,V,E$ be # of faces, vertices, and edges of a convex polyhedron. And, assume that $v_3+f_3=0$.

As we already know that the sum of angles around a vertex must be less than $2\pi$, we get a following inequality: $\sum \text{angles} < 2\pi V$.

But, $\sum \text{angles} = \sum (n-2)f_n \pi$ because the sum of angles of an $n$-gon is $(n-2)\pi$.

i.e. $V>\sum (n-2)f_n$. (This is where I'm having problem.)

Note that $E=\frac{1}{2}\sum nf_n$.

So, $2 = V + F - E > \sum (\frac{n}{2}-1)f_n$.

It is clear to see that $v_3+f_3 \geq 0$, but assuming $v_3+f_3=0$ gives us a contradiction because when $n \geq 4$, $2>\sum f_n$, which is not possible.

The problematic part: $V>\sum (n-2)f_n$

First, I thought this was a typo, and I thought it was supposed to be $2V>\sum (n-2)f_n$ as we can cancel $\pi$ out on both sides of the previous inequality. However, then this inequality only gives me that $2>0$, which doesn't imply anything.

$$2V>\sum (n-2)f_n \\ \Rightarrow V>\sum(\frac{n}{2}-1)f_n \\ \Rightarrow 2=V+F-E>0$$

So, now I'm trying to observe for any weird convex polyhedron so that I can find a counterexample of $V>\sum (n-2)f_n$, but the inequality seems right.

I am wondering where did this inequality come from, and if possible, I would like to know details behind here that are probably omitted because of the obvious reasons that I'm missing here.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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Unfortunately, you’re right, the proof is just wrong. You don’t even need a weird convex polyhedron; the inequality

$$ V\gt\sum(n-2)f_n $$

is violated for the dodecahedron,

$$ V = 20 \lt 36 = (5-2)\cdot12\;, $$

and for the icosahedron,

$$ V = 12 \lt 20 = (3-2)\cdot20\;. $$

If I had to guess how a correct proof might work, I’d suspect one might be able to use duality (since $v_3+f_3\gt0$ means that either the polyhedron or its dual has at least one triangle). If I find a proof I’ll update the answer.

Update:

Indeed, duality allows for a nice straightforward symmetric proof. If $v_3=f_3=0$, then $V\gt\frac12\sum(n-2)f_n\ge\frac12\sum(4-2)f_n=F$, and by duality analogously $F\gt V$, a contradiction.