Suppose you have $n$ identical pieces. You want to split them in $k$ groups. (each group must have $> 0$ pieces)
First, I was ask to answer the basic cases $1 \le k \le n \le 5$
For examble, $$P(4,1) = 1$$ $$P(5,1) = 1$$ $$P(4,2) = 2$$ $$P(5,3) = 2$$
Now I want to prove those 3 with combinatoric arguments.
- $P(n,k) = 0 \text{ if } n < k$
- $P(n,n) = P(n,1) = 1$
- $P(n, k) = P(n -1, k -1) + P(n-k,k)$
For the first one, my answer is : The function must be surjective. However, $|n| < |k|$, which cannot be surjective.
But I'm pretty sure this is not a combinatoric argument.
You don’t really have functions, since the objects, which ought to be the elements of the domain, are indistinguishable. However, you can use the same basic idea: if $n<k$, there is no way to make each group non-empty.
$P(n,n)$ is the number of ways to put the $n$ objects into $n$ non-empty groups. Clearly there’s only one way to do this: put one object into each group. (Since the objects are indistinguishable, there’s only one way to do this.) $P(n,1)$ is the number of ways to put the $n$ objects into a single group, and that’s clearly also just $1$.
$P(n, k) = P(n -1, k -1) + P(n-k,k)$ is the interesting one. HINT: There are two kinds of arrangements of $n$ objects in $k$ groups: those in which some group has only one object, and those in which every group has at least two objects. There are $P(n-1,k-1)$ arrangements of the first type; can you see why? And there are $P(n-k,k)$ of the second type; again, can you see why? (In both cases think about throwing away one or more objects.)