Given that $$ a,b \in \{ 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 \}$$ and $$b> \frac{a^4}{a^2+1}$$ How can I prove $b\geq a^2$ since I'm looking for all possible values of $(a,b)$ (and I actually know all though by some brute force) ?
So far I can go to the canonical form of the original inequality is this
$$b> a^2-1+ \frac{1}{a^2+1}.$$
Any help will be much appreciated :)
PS: I already solve this the way I wanted and I've seen my mistakes as well. Thanks to all who helped me and who edited my problem especially to @quasi. I'm SO satisfied rn since it's actually part of a more intricate probabilistic problem. I know it's kind of unfair but I'm more comfortable of my own solution and I put it below...
Let’s use contradiction. Suppose $b\leq a^{2}-1$.
$b\leq a^{2}-1$
$b(a^{2}+1)\leq (a^{2}-1)(a^{2}+1)$
$b\leq \frac{a^{4}-1}{a^{2}+1}$
Contradicting $b>\frac{a^{4}}{a^{2}+1}$