As mentioned, we have $R = k[x,y,z]$, $\mathfrak{p} = (xz - y^2, x^3 - yz, x^2y - z^2)$, and we want to determine if $\mathfrak{p}^2$ is $\mathfrak{p}$-primary.
So my first thought was no, mostly because I think the professor is pointing out that $\mathfrak p$ being prime (which I have already shown) does not imply powers of $\mathfrak p$ are $\mathfrak p$-primary. However, I cannot seem to develop a solid argument. I tried finding an element whose multiplication map from $R/\mathfrak p^2$ to itself is neither injective nor isomorphic, but I don't know how to pick a clever enough element. I also tried thinking about elements $ab\in \mathfrak p^2$ such that $a\notin \mathfrak p$ and $b^n\notin \mathfrak p$ for any $n$, but again I don't see how to come up with these. I think I would maybe want $b = z$, and come up with a crazy $a$ somehow. I even tried looking at some associated prime stuff, but that did not seem too fruitful.
Now I am second guessing my intuition like I am trying to fit a square peg in a round hole.
Any hints/suggestions are appreciated. Thanks.
In M2:
So $V(I^2)$ has an embedded fat point at the origin in ${\Bbb A}^3$.