I have an excercise and would like to know if the way I've solved it is correct or not
Given $U \sim \mathcal{Uniform}(0,1)$ What is the distribution of $X = 1-U$
My solution is..
$$
P(X\leq u)=\\
P(1-U \leq u)=\\
P(1-u \leq U)=\\
1-P(U \leq 1-u)=\\
1 - \int_{0}^{1-u}1du=\\
1 - (1 - u)=\\
u
$$
So $F_x(u)=u$ and therefore, the pdf is $f_x(u)=1$
It is just another Uniform(0,1)
Is the procedure correct? Am I missing something? Thanks a lot in advance for any commment!
Keep in mind $U=\phi(X)=1-X$ is a decreasing function, so when you want to find $P(\phi(X)<u) = P(X>\phi^{-1}(u))$, i.e. the inequality sign changes.