So my task is well summed up by this older post:
Given $P$ idempotent, show that $I-P$ is idempotent.
PandaMan idea is that by proving $(I−P)^2 = (I-P)$ we prove that $(I-P)$ which implies that also $(I−P)^2$
My question is, how do we know/prove that $(I−P)^2$ is idempotent?
Thanks in advance! /Luke
$$(I-P)^2 = I - 2P + P^2 = (I - P) + (P^2-P) = I-P$$
because $P^2-P = 0$ when $P$ is idempotent.