Without using limits or the definition of irrational numbers, how do you solve this? I was thinking proof by contradiction, but I keep running into problems.
2026-03-25 21:51:12.1774475472
Given $x^2=2$ prove for any rational number $\frac{p}{q} < x$,there exists $\frac{m}{n}$ such that $\frac{p}{q}<\frac{m}{n}<x$
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There are many possible answers, but I believe this one complies with the restrictions imposed (assuming $p,q>0$): $$\frac{m}{n} = \frac{4pq}{p^2+2q^2}.$$
Proof of $\frac{p}{q} < \frac{m}{n}$. By hypothesis $p^2 < 2q^2$ then $$\frac{m}{n} = \frac{4pq}{p^2+2q^2} > \frac{4pq}{2q^2+2q^2} = \frac{4pq}{4q^2} = \frac{p}{q}.$$
Proof of $\frac{m}{n} < \sqrt{2}$, or equivalently, $0 < 2n^2 - m^2$: $$2n^2 - m^2 = 2(p^2+2q^2)^2 - 16 p^4q^4 = 2 (2q^2 - p^2)^2 > 0.$$
Q.E.D.