Let $\mathscr{C}$ be an artinian, abelian category and $K(\mathscr{C})$ its Grothendieck group. If $[A]=0$ in $K(\mathscr{C})$ for an object $A$, can we then conclude $A=0$? This is true if $\mathscr{C}$ is also noetherian (i.e. finite-length), but I can't seem to show it if $\mathscr{C}$ is only artinian.
2026-03-25 23:23:00.1774480980
Grothendieck group of artinian abelian category
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There are familiar Noetherian counterexamples. For example, if $\mathcal{C}$ is the category of finitely generated abelian groups, then $[A]=0\in K_0(\mathcal{C})$ for any finite abelian group $A$.
For an Artinian example, just take the opposite category of a Noetherian example.