I'm trying to calculate the probability of guessing 3 numbers on a set of 5. The range is $[1, 6]$, the order is not relevant and numbers can repeat.
I did a small script to calculate it by brute force, and I got something unexpected. Choosing 3 identical numbers (e.g. 1, 1, 1) has a lower probability of drawing than 2 identical numbers, and this is also lower than 3 different numbers. I can't figure out why.
OK, let's calculate. If you choose $3$ identical numbers (say $1,1,1$), then you are right when the 5 numbers are:
A. those three $1$'s plus two non-$1$'s: ${5 \choose 3}=10$ 'spots' for your three $1$'s and $5 \cdot 5 = 25$ possibilities for the other two, for a total of $250$
B. you get four $1$'s and one non-$1$: ${5 \choose 4} \cdot 5=25$ possibilities
C. All five are a $1$: $1$ possibility
Now compare this with $1,1,2$. You get this when:
A. you get $1,1,2$, and two numbers that are neither $1$ nor $2$: $5 \cdot {4 \choose 2} = 30$ 'spots for your three numbers times $4 \cdot 4=16$ other numbers, make $480$ possbilities
... OK, we already have more possibilities for this to happen!
OK, and we also see the basic reason why: with $1,1,2$ you get this extra factor of $3$, as there are three ways for your $3$ 'hits' to occur: you first get a $1$, then another $1$, and then a $2$, or first a $1$, then a $2$, and then a $1$, or first a $2$, and then a $1$, and then the last $1$. With three $1$'s, you have no such possible permutations.
And this also explains why picking three different numbers is even better: Now you get $6$ permutations, i.e. $6$ different orders in which your 'hits' can occur.