This is a problem in Hartshorne concerning showing that the image of $\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^m$ under the Segre embedding $\psi$ is actually irreducible. Now I have shown with some effort that $\psi(\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^m)$ is actually equal to $V(\mathfrak{a})$ where $\mathfrak{a}$ is the ideal generated by the set of all monomials
$$\Big\{z_{ij}z_{kl} - z_{il}z_{kj} \hspace{1mm} \Big| \hspace{1mm} i,k = 0,\ldots, n; \hspace{2mm} j,l = 0,\ldots,m\Big\}.$$
My main problem now is in showing that $\mathfrak{a}$ is actually equal to the kernel of the ring homomorphism $$\varphi : k[z_{ij}] \to k[x_0,\ldots,x_n,y_0,\ldots,y_m]$$ that sends $z_{ij}$ to $x_iy_j$.
I have spent quite a few hours playing around with monomial orderings and trying to show that $\mathfrak{a} \supseteq \ker \varphi$ but to no avail. Of course, the other inclusion is immediate.
Is there anything I can do apart from playing around with monomial orderings to try and show that the kernel of $\varphi$ is equal to $\mathfrak{a}$? Perhaps maybe something along the lines of inducting on $n$, though this does not look promising.
Note: Please do not close this question; my question differs from the other questions on this site concerning the Segre embedding. Also, I can show my work concerning how I arrived at the conclusion that $V(\mathfrak{a}) = \psi(\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^n)$.
Indeed as Nils Matthes suggested we don't know need to go through such a mess and just use the hint of Hartshorne.
Define a map $\varphi : k[T_{00} , \ldots, T_{nm}] \to k[X_0,\ldots,X_n,Y_0,\ldots,Y_m]$ that sends $T_{ij}$ to $X_iY_j$. Let $\mathfrak{a} := \ker \varphi$. We claim that $\psi (\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^m) = V(\mathfrak{a})$. For one inclusion if a point $$a = [a_{00} : \ldots : a_{nm}] \in V(\mathfrak{a})$$ then in particular $a$ is a zero of all the polynomials $T_{ij}T_{kl} - T_{il}T_{kj}$. But this means that $a \in \psi(\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^m)$. The reverse inclusion follows immediately from the definition of $\varphi$. Thus $V(\mathfrak{a}) = \psi(\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^m)$ and the projective Nullstellensatz implies that $\psi(\Bbb{P}^n \times \Bbb{P}^m)$ is a projective variety.