Using the substitution $u=\frac{1}{x}$, show that $\int_{\frac{1}{2}}^{2} \frac{\ln{x}}{1+x^2} \,dx = 0$. Hence or otherwise, evaluate the limit $\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=1}^{3n} \frac{1}{2n} \times \frac{\ln\left(2\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{k}{2n}\right)\right)}{1+\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{k}{2n}\right)^2}$.
Inquiry 1 For the first part, neglecting the given substitution, what springs to mind at first is computing it using integration by parts. I'm uncertain about how to prove this using u-substitution only (well, I know $du=\frac{-1}{x^2}dx$, so I tried to modify $\frac{\ln{x}}{1+x^2}$ into $\frac{A}{1} + \frac{B}{x^2}$ where $A$ and $B$ are non-negative constants). However, it seems incorrect and I cannot proceed further.
Inquiry 2 For the second part, I know that the limit should be a Riemann sum, where the partition of the interval $ [0,1.5] $ is taken into $3n$ subintervals of equal width $\frac{1}{2n}$. However, similarly, I cannot proceed further because, frankly, my knowledge of integration is relatively inadequate.
Any help would be appreciated in order to tackle this question. Thank you.
$\newcommand{\d}{\,\mathrm{d}}$Let's begin with the given substitution:
For the limit - you should hopefully recognise this as a Riemann sum.
Examine closely:
The limit is accordingly (since the function here is "nice"): $$L=\int_{1/2}^2\frac{\ln(2x)}{1+x^2}\d x=\ln2\cdot\underset{\arctan(x)}{\underbrace{\int_{1/2}^2\frac{1}{1+x^2}\d x}}+\underset{=0}{\underbrace{\int_{1/2}^2\frac{\ln x}{1+x^2}\d x}}$$
So we have: $$L=\ln2\cdot[\arctan(2)-\arctan(1/2)]=\ln2\cdot\left[2\arctan2-\frac{\pi}{2}\right]=\ln 2\cdot\arctan\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)$$
Since $\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right)=\frac{1}{\tan(x)}$ and $\arctan(x)-\arctan(y)=\arctan\left(\frac{x-y}{1+xy}\right)$.