How can I show that $\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\overline{X})(\overline{X}-\mu)=0$? Anything that can point me in the right direction would help.
2026-04-01 10:44:37.1775040277
Help to prove $\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\overline{X})(\overline{X}-\mu)=0$.
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Assuming that $X_1, X_2, \dots, X_n$ is a random sample from a population with mean $\mu,$ where $\bar X = \frac 1 n \sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ (which you might have said), here is an outline of what you need to do:
$$\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \bar X)(\bar X - \mu) = \sum_{i=1}^n\left[\bar X X_i - \bar X^2 +\mu\bar X - \mu X_i\right]\\ = (n\bar X^2 - n\bar X^2) + (n\mu\bar X - n\mu\bar X) = 0.$$
You should give reasons for each step.