In every book they say: gluing points together in a topological space is done via the quotient topology. Then they provide some examples, but they don't try to explain WHY it is true for any kind of example we can think of:
- Considering $[0,1]/\sim$ with the quotient topology identifying $0$ with $1$ leads to a homeomorphism to the circle. That's also what our imagination says!
- Another examples is identifying the left and right site of a rectangle in the same direction, which leads to $[0,1]^2/\sim$ with the quotient topology, which is homeomorphic to a cylinder. That's also what our imagination says!
- Again, another example is considering the closed disk identifying the boundary $\mathbb{D}/\sim$ and using the quotient topology to get a homeomorphism to the sphere $\mathbb{S}^2$. That's also what our imagination says!
My question:
If we consider an object $X\subset \mathbb{R}^3$ and want to glue points together, our imagination in our head(!) leads to an object $Y\subset \mathbb{R}^3$ (just glue the points in your head together). But the books always say: Consider $X/\sim$ and take the quotient topology on it. What is a heuristic argument, that $X/\sim$ is homeomorphic to $Y$? I want a "why it should be true quotient topology leads really to gluing:..." and not just "your three examples provide evidence, that is good enough and should be true for all other cases...".
EDIT: Everyone of you stuck at the point, that $Y$ may not be in $\mathbb{R}^3$. That is not the point of my question. Just restrict your attention to examples, where $Y$ is in $\mathbb{R}^3$.
I don't want to take the definition for granted. I want to understand them and convince myself that's how we should do it. If you do research, you also have to find the right definition to capture the behavior you want. That may be the most difficult part in mathematical research.
MAIN QUESTION: If you never heard of the quotient topology (say we developed the theory of topological spaces one week ago), but you want to formalize the concept of gluing. You have a topological space $(X,\tau)$. Now you have an equivalence relation $\sim$ on $X$ and want to get a topological space $(X/\sim, ?)$. How would you come up with the right topology on the quotient set $X/\sim$ to catch the behavior of gluing in a mathematical precise manner?
For intuition on how open sets encode "nearness", consider the slightly more concrete setting of metric spaces, where openness is defined in terms of distance. In a metric space $M$, the following are equivalent:
Even though not every topological space is metrizable and there are spaces that violate our intuition, the metric space "picture" of open sets still motivates a lot of the definitions.
To define the quotient topology, we have a topology on $X$ and we want to specify the open sets of $Y=X/{\sim}$ so as to encode the "nearness of points" that results from gluing according to $\sim$. So for each set $S\subseteq Y$, we need to decide whether $S$ is open. This reduces to deciding what it means to be an interior point of $S$.
Suppose $y\in S$ is a glued point, i.e. $q^{-1}(y)=\{a,b\}$, where $q:X\to Y$ maps each point to its $\sim$-equivalence class. Since we've glued $a$ and $b$ together to make $y$, the new "neighbors" of $y$ are the points in $Y$ that come from "neighbors" of either $a$ or $b$ in $X$. For $y$ to be an interior point of $S$, $S$ must "include all of $y$'s neighbors", so we need $q(x)\in S$ whenever $x$ is "near enough" to $a$ or $b$. In other words, $q^{-1}(S)$ must include a neighborhood of $a$ and a neighborhood of $b$. In other words, $a$ and $b$ must be interior points of $q^{-1}(S)$.
Generalizing this to arbitrary $y$, we get that $y$ is an interior point of $S$ iff each element of $q^{-1}(y)$ is an interior point of $q^{-1}(S)$. Then we have the following chain of equivalent statements:
so we've arrived at the definition of the quotient space topology.