I want to show that $f:(0,2\pi]\to S^1$ defined by $t\to (\sin t, \cos t)$ is not a homeomorphism. I will do this by showing that its inverse is not continuous.
The inverse is defined by $(\sin t, \cos t)\to t$. So at $(0,1)$ we want to have $\lvert 2(1-\cos t)\rvert <\delta \Rightarrow \lvert t-2\pi\rvert<\epsilon$ for any $\epsilon$. If we take $\epsilon=\pi/2$, no matter how close $\cos t$ and $1$ are there will always be $t$'s close to $0$. So $f^{-1}$ is not continuous.
Can somebody explain this step of $\lvert 2(1-\cos t)\rvert <\delta \Rightarrow \lvert t-2\pi\rvert<\epsilon$ for any $\epsilon$ how this came?
The distance from $(0,1)$ to $(\sin t,\cos t)$ is$$\sqrt{\sin^2t+\bigl(\cos(t)-1)\bigr)^2}=\sqrt{2-2\cos t}.$$This is where the $2(1-\cos t)$ comes from. If $f^{-1}$ was continuous at $(0,1)$, then, when this number is small, the distance from $t$ to $2\pi$ ought to be small too.