Let us discuss this problem:
Let $A=\{a_{1},a_{2},\ldots,a_{n}\}$, $B=\{b_{1},b_{2},\ldots,b_{n}\}$ and $C=\{c_{1},c_{2},\ldots,c_{n-1}\}$ be discrete finite sets embedded in a unit sphere $S^2=x^2+y^2+z^2={1}$ so that the topologies of $A$, $B$ and $C$ are induced topology from the topology of the sphere (Note that the topologies of $A$, $B$ and $C$ are $P(A)$, $P(B)$ and $P(C)$ respectively, where $P(A)$ denotes the power set of $A$). Assume also that the points of $B$ are imbedded in a great circle in $S^{2}$ such that the arc length between each two of these points is equal. Also suppose that elements of $C$ are imbedded in a great circle (it can be the same great circle of $B$) so that the arc length between each two of these elements is equal.
Define $f_{0}\colon A \rightarrow B$ by $f_{0}(a_{i})=b_{i}$ for $i=1,2,\ldots,n$. Define also a function $f_{1}\colon A \rightarrow C$ by $f_{1}(a_{1})=f_{1}(a_{n})=c_{1}$ and $f_{1}(a_i)=c_{i}$ otherwise.
Question Is it possible to define a homotopy $F\colon A \times [0,1] \rightarrow S^{2}$ between $f_{0}$ and $f_{1}$?
$X$ and $Y$ are not continuous functions. How does the notion of homotopy apply here?
If, on the other hand, you want to ask if $X$ and $Y$ are homotopy equivalent, then this is clearly not possible either as the cardinality of path components of a space is a homotopy invariant and $X$ and $Y$ have distinct numbers of path components.