I am working on logistic regression, and have faced with the three equations below. I am told they are all equivalent. Why, how can I do the step by step calculations for them to be equivalent?
- $\dfrac{\Phi}{1-\Phi} = e^{(\beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 + \dots + \beta_kX_k)}$
- $\Phi = \dfrac{e^{(\beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 + \dots + \beta_kX_k)}}{1 + e^{(\beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 + \dots + \beta_kX_k)}}$
- $\Phi = \dfrac{1}{1 + e^{-(\beta_0 + \beta_1X_1 + \beta_2X_2 + \dots + \beta_kX_k)}}$
Let $y=e^{(\beta_0 + \beta_1X_2 + \beta_2X_2 + \cdots + \beta_kX_k)}$, then \begin{align} \frac{\Phi}{1-\Phi}&=y\tag1\\ \Phi&=y(1-\Phi)\\ \Phi&=y-y\,\Phi\\ \Phi+y\,\Phi&=y\\ \Phi(1+y)&=y\\ \Phi&=\frac{y}{1+y}.\tag2 \end{align} Multiplying the numerator and denominator of RHS in $(2)$ by $\dfrac1y$ yields \begin{align} \Phi&=\frac{y}{1+y}\cdot\frac{\frac1y}{\frac1y}\\ &=\frac1{\frac1y+1}\\ &=\frac1{y^{-1}+1}.\tag3 \end{align}