I have this function:
$f(x) = \frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}$
with domain $a\leqslant x \leqslant b$, where $b>a>0$
I think its range is $(0,1)$. I am not able to figure out what is the rule for $f^{-1}(x)$ for general $a$ and $b$ and its domain and range.
Thanks @Chris Custer, I have arrived at following solution after looking around on the internet:
Substitute y for x:
$y = \frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}$
Let $f^{-1}(x) = y$
$\implies f^{-1}(x)=\frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}$
using $g(f(x))$
$g(\frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}) = \frac{1}{(\frac{1}{x\log_e\frac{b}{a}})\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}$
$g(\frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}) = \frac{1}{\frac{\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}}$
$g(\frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}) = x$
since $g(f(x)) =x$
$f^{-1}(x) = \frac{1}{x\log_e(\frac{b}{a})}$
Question: I'm not sure aobut step 4 though :(
Interchange $x$ and $y$, and solve for $y$. Get $x=\dfrac1{y\log_e(\frac ba)}\implies y=\dfrac1{x\log_e(\frac ba)}$.
Thus $f$ is its own inverse.