Take $a_1,a_2,\cdots,a_m$ balls sequentially from a box of n balls, and you don't have to take all of them. It is guaranteed that $1\le m\le n$.
Denote the product of $a_1,a_2,\cdots ,a_m$ as $\prod_{i=1}^ma_i$ .
Prove that $\binom{n+m}{2m}=\frac{(n+m)!}{(2m)!(n-m)!}$ is the sum of $\prod_{i=1}^ma_i$ for all possible $a_1,a_2,\cdots ,a_m$ sequences. That is to prove
$$ \sum_{a_1+a_2+\cdots +a_m\le n}\prod_{i=1}^ma_i=\binom{n+m}{2m} $$
where $a_1,a_2,\cdots ,a_m$ and $m, n$ are all positive integers, and $m \le n$.
This can be proven by induction over $m$. The base case is $m = 1$ and is obvious. To establish $m + 1$ given $m$ one only needs to check that (verify this!) $$ \sum_{k=1}^{n-m} k \binom{n + m - k}{2m} = \binom{n + m + 1}{2m + 2}. $$ (Note that above $k$ indicates the value of $a_{m+1}$ and the coefficient arises from the induction hypothesis at $m$.)
To establish the identity above, expand. Re-indexing the sum, we find (check!) $$\sum_{k=1}^{n-m} k \binom{n + m - k}{2m} = \sum_{j=1}^{n-m} \binom{2m + (n - m -j) + 1}{2m + 1} = \sum_{j=0}^{n-m - 1} \binom{2m + 1 + j}{2m + 1} = \binom{n +m + 1}{2m +2}. $$ This proves the claim. Above, we have repeatedly used the rising sum identity for binomial coefficients.