How can I show that these two problems have the same optimal solution:
$$\inf \{ x^TAx + b^Tx : 1-x^Tx \ge 0,\ x \in \mathbb R^n\}$$
$$\inf \{ x^TAx + b^Tx : 1-x^Tx = 0,\ x \in \mathbb R^n\}$$
when $A$ is not positive semi-definite?
How can I show that these two problems have the same optimal solution:
$$\inf \{ x^TAx + b^Tx : 1-x^Tx \ge 0,\ x \in \mathbb R^n\}$$
$$\inf \{ x^TAx + b^Tx : 1-x^Tx = 0,\ x \in \mathbb R^n\}$$
when $A$ is not positive semi-definite?
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Start with $\|x^{\text{opt}}\|_2 < 1$ as a hypothetical optimal solution for $(1)$ and improve the value of the objective function by scaling $x^{\text{opt}}$. The infinmum exists because $\overline{B_1(0)}$ is compact in $\mathbb R^n$.
This gives a contradiction and shows that the infimum is attained on $\|x^{\text{opt}}\|_2 = 1$ so the problems are equivalent.