I'm studying ordinal numbers in Halmos's book (page 75). After the definition of ordinal number, he proves that $w^+$ is an ordinal number where $w$ is the set of all natural numbers.
In the last part of the proof, he states that $s(w) = w$ "by definition of order" (where $s(w)$ is the initial segment of $w$). (I don't actually know which definition has been applied in this context)
I couldn't understand how $s(w) = w$ because as far as I know, we don't have the notion of $x \lt w$ where $x$ is a natural numbers (i think we only have the order defined on the set of natural number, in other words, we compare 2 natural numbers but not a natural number and the set of all natural numbers). And moreover, I think even if we can "compare" a natural number and $w$, how could we make sure that the initial segment of $w$ is equal to $w$ ? (i.e. I think there can be for example 2 times the number 1 appear in the initial segment i.e. $s(w) =$ {0; 1; 1; ...}).
Could you please help me out of this misunderstanding ? Thank you very much
An example of an ordinal number that is not a natural number is the set $w$ consisting of all the natural numbers. This means that we can ready "count" farther than we could before; whereas before the only numbers at our disposal were the elements of $w$, now we have $w$ itself.
We have also the successor $w^+$ of $w$; this set is ordered in the obvious way, and, moreover the obvious ordering is a well ordering that satisfies the condition imposed on ordinal numbers.
Indeed, if $x \in w^+$, then by the definition of successor, either $x \in w$ in which case we already know that $s(x) = x$ or else $x = w$, in which case $s(x) = w$, by the definition of order, so that again $s(x) = x$
Halmos defines an ordinal number in the paragraph before the ones you are quoting:
Since the initial segment of $x$ is $x$ itself, we must have that $y\in s(x)$ (which is the same as $y<x$) if and only if $y\in x$; in other words, the ordering of an ordinal set is the same as $\in$.
When Halmos says that $\omega^+$ is ordered in the obvius way, he means that elements of $\omega$ are ordered in the common way and $\omega$ is bigger than all of them (you can easily check that this is a well order), which matches with $m<n$ if and only if $m\in n$, because we already know this is true for $m, n\in\omega$, and we have $m<\omega$ for all $m\in\omega^+$ different from $\omega$, which are precisely the $m\in\omega$.