I am going through the inclusion-exclusion proof for the number of derangements, and the first step is to take all permutations and subtract all arrangements in which each element (individually) appears in its original location: (https://artofproblemsolving.com/wiki/index.php?title=Derangement)
$n! - {n\choose1}{(n-1)!}$
This comes out to $0$.
I am having a hard time wrapping my head around the idea that the set of permutations in which each element (individually) appears in its original location can equal the total number of permutations which includes the set where none of the elements appear in the original location AND the ones in which each element (individually) appears in its original location.
I understand that doing the math proves it, but how does it make sense?
Your first term counts the total number of permutations. Your second counts the -sum- of the terms leaving each spot fixed, where the sum is taken over every possible spot. In this sum, certain permutations are counted more than once, which is why you get such a large number.