Define a function $I:\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ as follows.
$$I(a,b)=\int_a^b \sin t \cos t \,d t$$
Then we can find a more explicit description of $I$ using integration by substitution. So let $u = \sin t$. Then $d u = \cos t \,dt$. Therefore:
$$I(a,b) = \int_a^b \sin t \cos t \,d t = \int_{t=a}^{t=b}udu = \left[\frac{1}{2}u^2\right]_{t=a}^{t=b} = \left[\frac{1}{2} \sin^2 t\right]_{t=a}^{t=b} = \frac{1}{2}\left(\sin^2b-\sin^2 a\right)$$
I'm not confident in our final answer, though; there's just too many dodgy things going on. These include both general issues with integration by substitution, and issues that are somewhat more specific to this problem.
General Issues.
I've always been a bit uncomfortable with this "let $u=\sin t$" stuff, since we never said anything like "let $t$ denote a fixed but arbitrary real number," so the meaning of $t$ is ambiguous. This isn't easily fixed though; we don't want to say "let $t$ denote a fixed but arbitrary real number" because moments later, we're going to quantify over $t$ by integrating, so clearly it wasn't fixed.
Another general issue is that I don't really know what expressions like $du = \cos t dt$ mean. Under the usual semantics for equations, we would think of this as being true for some pairs $(u,t)$ and false for others. Here, that semantics doesn't work, so its not at all clear to me what is being asserted.
Particular Issues.
In this particular case, since the function $t \in [a,b] \mapsto \sin t \in \mathbb{R}$ isn't injective for a sufficiently large gap between $a$ and $b$, I'm not even sure we're allowed to perform integration by substitution here. (Are we?)
The notation $\int_{t=a}^{t=b}udu$ and $\left[\frac{1}{2}u^2\right]_{t=a}^{t=b}$ just kind of seems kind of ambiguous to me. Does this really make sense? If so, how does one formalize the meanings of these expressions?
Question. Suppose we want to conceptualize integration by substitution rigorously, and to apply it rigorously (using unambiguous notation) to find $I(a,b)$ explicitly. How can we do this?
Please don't post answers that cleverly avoid using integration by substitution. I want to understand it, not avoid it.
From the perspective of an elementary calculus student (by which I mean that it can supposedly be made rigorous later on, but isn't in introductory classes), the $du$, $dx$ stuff is absolute nonsense and I will never understand why it continues to be used by so many professors. It really is the one glaring hole in most otherwise rigorous calculus courses. Really bizarre.
Anyway, the real story is told using composition of functions. Where $f$ is an integrable function on $[a, b]$, I'll denote $\int_a^b f$ the integral of $f$ over $[a, b]$, since it really is something determined by the function itself, there are no "variables" (whatever that could mean) anywhere.
Then we have:
$$\int^b_a(f\circ\phi)\phi'=\int^{\phi(b)}_{\phi(a)}f$$
There are appropriate assumptions that need to be made about $f$ and $\phi$, which are better explained on Wikipedia.
Thus for example let's say we want to integrate
$$\int^2_1\frac {2x} {1+x^2}$$
Well, defining $f(x)=\frac 1 x$ and $\phi=1+x^2$, the integrand is precisely $(f\circ\phi)\phi'$, therefore the integral is equal to
$$\int^{\phi(2)}_{\phi(1)}\frac 1 x=\int^{5}_{2}\frac 1 x$$
Note: I can say from personal experience that thinking with this approach is much slower than the "multiply both sides by $dx$" approach that most of your classmates will be using. I recommend practicing thinking with function composition alot until you can do it quickly and fluently.