Say $\{x_n\}$ is Cauchy in $\ell^p$ and $x$ is its pointwise limit. To argue that $x \in \ell^p$ would the following be correct:
Let $\varepsilon > 0$ and let $N$ be s.t. $n,m > N$ $\Rightarrow$ $|x_n - x_m|_p < \varepsilon$. Then $\lim_{m \to \infty} |x_n - x_m|_p = |x-x_n|_p \le \varepsilon$.
I saw the following different argument: $|x_n - x_m|_p < \varepsilon$ implies $\left(\sum_{k=0}^M |(x_n - x_m)_k|^p\right)^{1/p} < \varepsilon$ for all $M$ therefore $\lim_{m \to \infty}\left(\sum_{k=0}^M |(x_n - x_m)_k|^p\right)^{1/p} = \left(\sum_{k=0}^M |(x_n - x)_k|^p\right)^{1/p} \le \varepsilon$ for all $M$ therefore $\lim_{M \to \infty} \left(\sum_{k=0}^M |(x_n - x)_k|^p\right)^{1/p} \le \varepsilon$.
The difference is to use a finite sum step in between. Is it correct to drop it? And if not: why not? Norm seems to be continuous so one should be able to exchange norm and limit. Thanks.
It's not correct to drop the finite sum step. Your equation $$\lim_{m\to\infty} |x_n-x_m|_p = |x-x_n|_p$$ assumes already that $x_m\to x$ in $\ell^p$. The finite sum step is a trick to allow you to take a limit. (It's always OK to take a termwise limit of a finite sum, but it's not always OK for an infinite sum.)