How do I show convergence in the 2-adics in general, but particularly for the series given below?
If, to discriminate between convergence in different $p$-adics I define $\infty_p=\lim_{n\to\infty} p^n$ then it would seem reasonable to state $\infty_2=0_2$ in the 2-adics. I'm unsure of however, whether other series are convergent in the 2-adics such as whether $\infty_3=0_2$
I have an infinite sum which is divergent in the integers but in the 2-adics it converges to $\infty_2=0$.
The case I have in mind is; show that for every $x_0\in3\mathbb{N}_{>0}$:
$$f(x_0)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(3^n\left(x_m-2^{v(x_0)}\right)+\sum_{k=0}^n3^{n-k}2^{v(x_{k})} \right)=0_2$$
where $v(\cdot)$ is the (additive) 2-adic valuation $v:\Bbb Q_2^\times\to\Bbb Z$ and $x_{m+1}=2x_m+v(x_m$).
It actually converges to $2^r$ for some $r$ in finite steps for all $x_m$ and lands on every alternate power of $2$ thereafter.
How might one typically identify convergence in such a series? Straight off the bat I can see that it's sufficient to show its value converges to the inverse of its 2-adic norm and therefore if $x$ converges to $0_2$, then $\frac{x}{2^{v(x)}}=1$
I can also see that this problem is equivalent to stating that for any given $x_0$, for sufficiently large $r$, there exists a series $x_0+x_{1}+\ldots$ in which $x_{m+1}=2x'_m+2^{v(x)}$ which sums to either $2^r$ or $2^{r+1}$ where $x'_m$ denotes the partial sum to $x_m$. I mention this partly to highlight the alternating nature of the series in that for sufficiently high $2^r$ it lands on alternate powers of $2$ and not on every power of $2$.
I'm not necessarily asking you to solve this problem (although that would be welcome!) as it's clearly a challenging one but guidance as to a typical method would be appreciated. There is much I am unsure of.
This belongs in a comment, but it will be too long.
You raise in your comment to @Wojowu the issue of the $p$-adic limit of $(1+p)^n$, as $n\to\infty$, and this is something I know somewhat much about.
It’s easiest to see what’s going on in the case $p\ge3$, for there, the integral powers of $1+p$ form a dense subgroup of the multiplicative group $1+p\Bbb Z_p$, the group of “principal units” of the $p$-adic ring $\Bbb Z_p$. This means that in (perhaps) the strongest sense possible, $\lim_{n\to\infty}(1+p)^n$ does not exist. The question that I would have asked you to pose instead would be the nature of $\lim(1+p)^{p^n}$, and maybe I should challenge you to show that the value of this limit is $1$. Granting the truth of this claim, you can show that $(1+p)^z$ makes good sense for no matter what $p$-adic integer $z$. For instance, $3$-adically, $10$ is a square, so that $4^{\sqrt{10}}$ makes good sense as an element of $\Bbb Z_3\subset\Bbb Q_3$. You can even use this to exhibit an isomorphism between the additive group $\Bbb Z_p$ and the multiplicative group $1+\Bbb Z_p$, by $z\mapsto(1+p)^z$, though verifying that it is an isomorphism requires some work.
In the case $p=2$, the situation is just a little more complicated, because $1+2\Bbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $\Bbb Z_2$, rather the picture is $\{\pm1\}\times\Bbb Z_2$, and the subgroup of $1+2\Bbb Z_2$ that’s isomorphic to $\Bbb Z_2$ is topologically generated by $5$. That is, the $\Bbb Z$-powers of $5$ form a dense subgroup of $1+4\Bbb Z_2$. The upshot again is that the powers of $3$ again have no limit, and but rather form a subgroup of the principal units whose closure is of index two in $1+2\Bbb Z_2$.