Question: A leather bag contains 4 black beads, 3 red beads and three white beads. Inside a plastic bag are 5 black beads, 2 red beads and 3 white beads. Another nylon bag contains 6 black beads, 1 red bead and 3 white beads. One bead is randomly withdrawn from each bag.
What is the probability of getting at least two white beads?
My workout:
1- (4/5 * 4/5 * 4/5) # the probability of not getting 2 white beads and the only way for that to happen is if only 1 white bead is picked therefore leaving 8 to pick from. And since each bag has 10 beads including 3 white beads the chance for this is 8/10= 4/5 This is my logic behind this
My final answer:
1- (4/5 * 4/5 * 4/5) = 1 - 64/125 = 61/125
My problem with this now is, I don't know if this is the answer or I have missed a step. Any help will be appreciated
We are drawing one bead each from the three bags, and we are drawing them independently. There is a $\frac3{10}$ chance of drawing a white bead from each bag. If we get at least two white beads, we could have got them from
For each of the first three cases it is implied that we draw a non-white bead from the third bag, which has a $\frac7{10}$ chance of happening. The probability of each of these cases happening is therefore $\frac3{10}\times\frac3{10}\times\frac7{10}=\frac{63}{1000}$; we multiply this by three for the probability of getting exactly two white beads, which works out to be $\frac{189}{1000}$.
Similarly, the last case (drawing exactly three white beads) has probability $\frac3{10}\times\frac3{10}\times\frac3{10}=\frac{27}{1000}$ of occurring. Since drawing two white beads and drawing three white beads are mutually exclusive events, add them together to get your answer: $\frac{189}{1000}+\frac{27}{1000}=\frac{216}{1000}=\frac{27}{125}$.
If you look a little deeper this is really a binomial distribution $X$ with $n=3$ and $p=\frac3{10}$; we have just calculated $P(X\ge2)$.