My question is regarding how to prove that $A\cap B=B\iff B\subseteq A$. I can understand it logically: let $x$ be an arbitrary element in set $B$. Since $A\cap B=B$, this means that $x$ must be an element of both $A$ and $B$, because it's in their intersection. Therefore, $x\in A$ and $x\in B$. But I don't know how to go further.
2026-05-17 10:51:15.1779015075
How do you prove that $A\cap B=B$ is equivalent to $B\subseteq A$?
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Let us prove first that $A\cap B = B$ implies that $B\subseteq A$. If $x\in B = A\cap B$, this implies that $x\in A$ and $x\in B$. In particular, $x\in A$. Consequently, the proposed result holds. Suppose now that $B\subseteq A$. If $x\in B$, then $x\in A$, that is to say $x\in A\cap B$. On the other hand, if $x\in A\cap B$, then $x\in A$ and $x\in B$. In particular, $x\in B$ and we are done.
Hopefully this helps!