In an article I'm reading (http://www.jmlr.org/papers/volume13/dekel12a/dekel12a.pdf) it says:
"It is well-known that the optimal regret bound [...] is $O(\sqrt m)$"
Then:
"[in a network,] assuming that each node processes $m/k$ inputs, the expected regret per node is $O(\sqrt \frac{m}{k})$. Therefore, the total regret across all k nodes is $O(\sqrt km)$".
The second part of this statement does not seem very obvious to me, can someone explain how they got this result?
Thanks!
Formally, if you have $f\in\mathcal{O}(g)$, by definition $$\limsup_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{f(n)}{g(n)}\right|<\infty\text{.}$$
You can trivially get $$\limsup_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{\sum_{i=1}^kf(n)}{kg(n)}\right|<\infty$$ as the same limit, so adding $k$ copies of $f$ means you are now $\in\mathcal{O}(kg)$. Notably, this works even if $k$ itself varies.
They're just summing expectations by linearity, $k\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}=\sqrt{km}$.