Why is this statement true?
If $p$ is prime then $(p-1)! \not\equiv 0\space mod\space p$.
I would like to know why this is true.
Why is this statement true?
If $p$ is prime then $(p-1)! \not\equiv 0\space mod\space p$.
I would like to know why this is true.
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The prime factorization of $\ (p-1)!\ $ can only contain primes smaller than $p$ because we multiply numbers smaller than $\ p\ $. Hence, if $\ p\ $ is prime, $\ (p-1)!\ $ cannot be divisible by $\ p\ $. In fact, by Wilson's theorem, we have $$p\mid (p-1)!+1$$ for every prime $\ p\ $.