Let $A$ be the set of all functions $f$ such that, for some constant $C$, $|f(x)-f(y)|\leq C|x-y|$ for all $y$ in an interval around $x$ (in other words $f$ is Lipschitz of order 1 at $x$).
Question 11-34 (c) from Spivak's Calculus goes somewhat like this
Prove that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ then $f\in A$.
Answer book says
If $f$ is differentiable at $x$ then $\forall\varepsilon>0\;\exists\delta$ such that $$|y-x|<\delta\Rightarrow\left|\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}-f'(x)\right|<\varepsilon$$ which means that, for $C=\varepsilon+|f'(x)|$, $$\frac{|f(y)-f(x)|}{|y-x|}<C$$ $$|f(y)-f(x)|\leq C|y-x|$$ $\square$.
This last step seems kinda shady. Since $x\neq y$ (because we have divided by it), how does one prove equality?
You have that $\dfrac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|}<C$ for all $x\not=y$.
So $|f(x)-f(y)|<C|x-y|$ for all $x\not=y$.
For $x=y$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|=|x-y|$ so $|f(x)-f(y)|\leq C|x-y|$ for all $x,y$.