I am stuck at the following definition which our professor gave during a talk today. He said that the Euclidean space $\mathbb R^n$ can be viewed as $\mathbb R^n=G/H$ where $G$ is the group of all rigid motions in $\mathbb R^n$ and $H=SO_n$ where $SO_n$ denotes the set of all orthogonal transformations.
I don't understand how did he make this statement. I know the following definitions:
- The set of all rigid motions of $\mathbb R^n$ comprise of translations, rotations and reflections and they form a group which is known as the Euclidean motion group $E(n)$.
- If we consider only the rotations and reflections of the Euclidean space $\mathbb R^n$ then they form a group which is known as orthogonal transformations denoted by $O(n)$. However if we consider only the rotations then the group is denoted by $SO(n)$.
My questions are as follows:
If I suppose that my professor denoted $E(n)$ by $G$
How do we know that $\mathbb R^n=G/H$? I have been scratching my head and searching various articles like this https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S092465090870062X but I am unable to crack this part. Can someone please give a step by step explanation of how $\mathbb R^n$ can be viewed as a quotient group of $E(n)$ by $SO(n)$ for any $n$.
As I said in my comment, I think the accurate theorem is:
$$ \frac{E(n)}{O_n} \cong \mathbb{R}^n$$
The key point is that $O_n$ is the set of all rigid motions which fix the origin. I'll assume this is obvious.
$E(n) / O_n$ is the set of cosets of the group $O_n$ in $E(n)$, namely the elements $eO_n$ for $e \in E(n)$, with the operation $(e O_n)(fO_n) = (ef)O_n$. For this operation to be well defined, we require that if $ef^{-1}\in O_n$, then $eO_n = fO_n$.
So let $e$ be any rigid motion. Consider the transformation $e': x \to e(x) - e(0)$. Clearly, $e'(0) = 0$. Since $e'$ is a composition of rigid motions, it is a rigid motion too. By the "obvious fact", $e'=e$ if and only if $e \in O_n$. As a consequence, $eO_n = e(0)O_n$ for every $e$ (where by $e(0)$ here I mean the translation $x \to x + e(0)$). The group of such $e(0)$ is clearly $(\mathbb{R}^n, +)$.