In my lectures, the relationship $\underline{\hat{e_k}} \cdot \underline{\hat{ e_j}}$ is given to be equal to $\delta_{kj}$ - how is this so?
From my understanding this is equal to $ \left( \begin{array}\\ 0\\ 0\\ 1 \end{array} \right) \cdot \left( \begin{array}\\ 0\\ 1\\ 0 \end{array} \right) $, which would give $\left( \begin{array}\\ 0\\ 0\\ 0 \end{array} \right)$; not the kroenecker delta.
For context, this is discussed whilst going over an introduction to the moment of inertia tensor.
The dot product is a scalar, not a vector, so you are obvious wrong.
And then you seem to attach specific meanings to $k$ and $j$ when there are just used as variables in that statement.
$\underline{\hat{e_k}}$ (btw: that's an awful lot of indications it's a vector) just means the $k$'th unit vector, with that in mind try to calculate the dot product again.