I guess the answer is pretty intuitive that its 52 C 4 to most people, but no one has been able to explain to me why it's not 52*51*50*49*48... My reasoning is the first time you choose you to have 52 cards to choose from, then 51, and so on and so on. Can someone please explain it to me?
2026-04-02 15:50:57.1775145057
How many hands in poker?
46 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
1
In this way you are overcounting the hands since for example the hand
A♦️K♦️Q♠️J♠️10 ♥️
K♦️Q♠️J♠️10 ♥️ A♦️
...
is counted 5*4*3*2*1=5! and since this is true fir each hand we need to divide by 5! to obtain $\binom{52}{5}$ hands.