Soft question: How might mathematics be different today if we were using Frege's set theory instead of ZFC? Assume no inconsistencies like Russell's Paradox had ever been discovered in Frege's set theory.
2026-03-27 20:14:25.1774642465
How might mathematics be different today if we were using Frege's set theory instead of ZFC?
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Not much, if at all. First of all, most of "ordinary mathematics" does not depend on which formalization is used for set theory, ZFC, NBG or Russell's Principia. For that matter, Russell's paradox does not arise if Frege's Basic Law V is replaced by the weaker Hume's principle, which Frege knew and modern neo-Fregeans promote. So one can use Frege's second order logic for foundations too, "set theory in sheep's closing", as Quine called it. First order theories, like ZFC, won over higher order intensional theories for reasons of technical convenience, and they likely would have done so even if Russell's paradox was never discovered, and Russell's ramified type theory was not as onerous.
Even within mathematical logic Frege's influence was not as great as one might expect. He himself was not well versed in prior developments that influenced 19th century logic, and although he developed the predicate calculus with quantifiers slightly earlier than Peirce and Mitchell, who were so versed, it was their version, systematized in Schröder's Algebra of Logic, that was picked up by Russell and became common today. Here is Dipert's summary from Peirce, Frege, the Logic of Relations, and Church's Theorem (History and Philosophy of Logic, 5 (1984), 49-66):
In fairness, Russell and subsequent logicians felt more affinity to Frege for a reason. His view of mathematical foundations and rigor was more in line with the one that eventiually emerged through the efforts of Peano, Hilbert, Zermelo, Russell, and many others. But again, this view is not specifically tied to Frege's choice of formalism. Here is Dipert again: