Say you have $N$ people each having a probability of $p$ for being affected (and, $p+q=1$, a probability of $q$ for being not infected).
Say you have a test where you can combine the samples for any $n \leq N$ people and the test tells if any (at least, one) of the people is infected.
Looking for a testing scheme that tells us which people are infected and which are not, how would that be accomplished with the lowest number of tests?
To give an example what I'm talking about, one approach would be to do a collective test on all $N$ people, and if that is negative, we're done, with just the costs for one test. If not, we divide the people into subsets, testing each subset and then go on until each subset has cardinality 1.
Instinct tells me to use two groups of $N/2$ as subsets, but I don't see an elegant way to prove this, short of brute-force computation of every possibility.
Edit: as @Ross Millikan pointed out, the answer depends heavily on $p$. I had low values for $p$ in mind, lower than $0.1$ but I would like a general answer.
Edit2: as part of an answer (or a partly answer) I would like to see a way to formalize this question (which I as of now have difficulties with).
In case $p \approx 0$ this is a known optimization problem, that was solved during The Second World War. The proposed procedure is the following:
Take n people, and devide them into $\frac{n}{k}$ groups (each group consists of k people). The groups' participants' blood is mixed and tested together, if the test comes out ot be false, than everyone in this group is not infected, otherwise test each groups' participant blood individually.
The expected number of tests taken is:
$\mathbb{E}(\# \ tests) = \frac{n}{k} \cdot \left( 1 \cdot (1 - p)^k + (k + 1) \cdot (1 - (1 - p)^k) \right) \to \min\limits_{k}$
If we set derivative of this function to 0 we won't get analytical solution, but we can approximate our function, using fact, that $(1 - p)^k \approx 1 - pk, \ p \approx 0$
So: $\mathbb{E}(\# \ tests) = n \cdot \left(1 + \frac{1}{k} - (1 - p)^k \right) \approx n \cdot (1 + \frac{1}{k} - 1 + pk) \to \min\limits_{k}$
$\mathbb{E}(\# \ tests)^{\prime}_{k} \approx n \cdot \left(\frac{1 + pk^2}{k} \right)^{\prime}_{k} = n \cdot \frac{2 pk^2 - 1 - pk^2}{k^2} = 0 \Rightarrow \boxed{k^{\ast} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{p}}}$
For $p = 0.01$ we have $\mathbb{E}(\# \ tests) \approx \frac{n}{5}$, so we get 5 times less tests.