It all started when I tried to convince a 10th grader that if $f$ is a function defined on $\mathbb{R}^n$ the differential is defined by:
$\large \displaystyle df = \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_1}}dx_1 + \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_2}}dx_2 + \cdots \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_n}}dx_n$
and if $x_i = g_i(t)$ then:
$\large\displaystyle \frac{df}{dt} = \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_1}}\frac{dx_1}{dt} + \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_2}}\frac{dx_2}{dt} + \cdots \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_n}}\frac{dx_n}{dt}$
As he's a 10th grader, he's supposed to think of $df$ as a small change in the value of $f$ caused by a small change in $(x_1,...,x_n)$.
I have defined $df$ for a differentiable function $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ in the following naive but intuitive way and he has happily accepted this definition:
$\large \displaystyle df = \lim_{\Delta{x} \to 0} \Delta{y}$ where $\large \Delta{y} = f'(x)\Delta{x} + \epsilon(\Delta{x})\Delta{x}$ and $\large \epsilon(\Delta{x})$ is a function of $\large \Delta{x}$ that compensates the error for turning $\large f'(x) = \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta{x} \to 0}\frac{\Delta{y}}{\Delta{x}}$ into an equality and by definition we have $\large \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta{x} \to 0}\epsilon(\Delta{x}) = 0$
Using that definition, I convinced him why the differential of a multivariable function is generalized to higher dimensions that way. But I failed to convince him why it's not a good idea to cancel $\partial{x_i}$ in the denominator with $dx_i$ just like we're dealing with fractions. I'm also afraid of proving the chain rule for him by dividing $\Delta{t}$ and then letting $\Delta{t} \to 0$. I'm looking for an easy explanation, suitable for a high school student, that convinces him why differentials shouldn't be looked at as fractions contrary to what many students think in high school.
A standard example is the equation $PV = T$. Note that
$$P = \frac{T}{V} \implies \frac{\partial P}{\partial V} = -\frac{T}{V^2}$$ $$V = \frac{1}{P}T \implies \frac{\partial V}{\partial T} = \frac{1}{P}$$ $$T = PV \implies \frac{\partial T}{\partial P} = V$$ so $$\frac{\partial P}{\partial V} \frac{\partial V}{\partial T} \frac{\partial T}{\partial P} = -\frac{T}{V^2}\frac{1}{P}V = -\frac{T}{PV} = -1.$$
Edit: There's also the chain rule. If $f$ is a function of two variables, say $f(u,v)$, where both $u$ and $v$ are themselves functions of two variables (say $u=u(x,y)$ and $v=v(x,y)$), then the chain rule is
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v}\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}.$$
If we could just cancel the $\partial u$'s and $\partial v$'s, we'd get the absurd $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$.
Admittedly, this is not the most conceptual explanation, but I imagine it'll convince quite a few high school (and college) students.