I got this doubt while evaluating the integrals:
$$I=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln(\sin x)\sin xdx$$ and
$$J=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\csc xdx$$
Now even though the integrand $f(x)=\ln(\sin x)\sin x$ is not defined at $x=0$ which is the lower limit, still it has a finite answer.
But integrand in $J$ is not defined at $x=0$ and integral is infinite.
So how to identify without explicitly evaluating?
Notice, however, that
\begin{eqnarray} \lim_{x\to0^+}\ln(\sin x)\sin x&=&\lim_{x\to0^+}\frac{\ln(\sin x)}{\csc x}\\ &=&\lim_{x\to0^+}\frac{\cot x}{(-\csc x\cot x)}\\ &=&\lim_{x\to0^+}(-\sin x)\\ &=&0 \end{eqnarray}
Here is the graph of $y=\ln(\sin x)\sin x$