By intuition, I found that the result of evaluating the following expression
$$ \frac{1}{M} \frac{\sum_{N=0}^M \frac{M!}{(M-N)!N!} N e^{cN}}{\sum_{N=0}^M \frac{M!}{(M-N)!N!} e^{cN}} $$
does not depend on the positive value of the integer $M$, i.e. it only depends on $c\in\mathbb R$.
I corroborated this with the help of a simple Python script. How to show analytically that this is true?
By the Binomial Theorem, the denominator is $(e^c+1)^M$. The numerator can also be manipulated to apply the Binomial Theorem: \begin{align*} \sum_{N=0}^M \frac{M!}{(M-N)!N!} Ne^{cN} &= \sum_{N=1}^M \frac{M\cdot (M-1)!}{((M-1)-(N-1))!(N-1)!}e^{c(N-1)}\cdot e^c\\ &=Me^c \sum_{N=1}^M \binom{M-1}{N-1}e^{c(N-1)}\\ &=Me^c \sum_{K=0}^{M-1} \binom{M-1}{K}e^{cK}\\ &=Me^c (e^c+1)^{M-1}. \end{align*}
So the whole expression simplifies to: $$\frac{e^c}{e^c+1}.$$