I wanted to show
$$
\int_{0}^{\infty}\sin\left(x^{2}\right){\rm d}x = {\,\sqrt{\,{2\pi}\,}\, \over 4}.
$$
As per hint in book Hint in Book
- Que 1: I do not understand why to chose $\operatorname{f}\left(z\right) = {\rm e}^{-z^{2}}\ ?$.
- Que:2 $\operatorname{f}\left(z\right) = {\rm e}^{-z^{2}}$ as it is holomorphic over the path $\int_{C}\operatorname{f} = 0$ by Cauchy Theorem.
- How to Integrate following
$$ \int_{0}^{\pi/4} {\rm e}^{-R^{2}\,{\rm e}^{2{\rm i}\theta}}\,\,\, R{\rm i}{\rm e}^{{\rm i}\theta}\,{\rm d}\theta =\ ? $$
Any help will be appreciated.
The reason behind the choice is that when we integrate along the radius making an angle of $\frac{\pi}{4}$ with the $x$-axis we get the following:
$$\int_L e^{-z^2}dz = \int_0^R e^{-\left(re^{i\frac{\pi}{4}}\right)^2}e^{i \frac{\pi}{4}}dr = \left(\frac{1+i}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\int_0^R e^{-ir^2} dr$$ $$ = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\int_0^R \cos(r^2)dr + \int_0^R \sin(r^2)dr\right) + \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\int_0^R \cos(r^2)dr - \int_0^R \sin(r^2)dr\right)$$
So we can find out the answer just taking real and imaginary value of $\int_L e^{-z^2}dl$.
As you've noted the intgral along the closed line should $0$, thus it suffices to calculate the values of the integral along the arc and the $x$-axis.
For the arc we have:
$$\left| \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} e^{-(Re^{i\theta})^2}iRe^{i\theta}d\theta \right| \le \left| e^{-(Re^{i\theta})^2}iRe^{i\theta} \right| \cdot \frac{R\pi}{4} = e^{-R^2\cos(2\theta)} \frac{R^2 \pi}{4} \to 0, \text{ as } R \to \infty$$
For the $x$-axis we have that:
$$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-z^2}dz = \frac{\sqrt\pi}{2}$$
Finally comparing the real and imaginary parts we get:
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\int_0^R \cos(r^2)dr + \int_0^R \sin(r^2)dr\right) = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}$$ $$\int_0^R \cos(r^2)dr - \int_0^R \sin(r^2)dr = 0$$
From here it's not hard to make the conclusion