Context: reflexion on a possible way to misunderstand " modus ponens" as meaning ( erroneously) : If [(P-->Q) and P] then (P logically implies Q).
Sure, a truth table shows that [ (P-->Q) & P ] logically implies that " P materially implies Q".
Indeed the formula " [ (P-->Q) & P ] --> ( P-->Q) " is valid,
or ( equivalently " [ (P-->Q) & P ] ==> ( P-->Q) " is correct ( with " ==>"
meaning (tauto)logically implies" )
But I can't manage to explain, using a truth table or another method, that
[ (P-->Q) & P ] ==> ( P==>Q) is not correct,
with " ==> " still meaning (tauto)logically implies .
Which valuation would make [ (P-->Q)&P] true and (P==>Q) false?
I'm not even sure that this way of putting the question is correct.

The expression $(P → Q) ∧ P$ is a formula of the language while $P \vDash Q$ is not.
$\vDash$ is a symbol of the meta-language expressing a relation between formulas, while $(P → Q) ∧ P$ is an expression in the object language.
Every valuation $v$ will assign a truth value to formula; thus, with valuation $v$ such that $v(P)=\text T$ and $v(Q)=\text F$, the formula will be evaluated to $\text F$.
Obviously, with a different valuation the resulting truth value can change (except for tautologies and contradictions).
The situation is different for the relation $\vDash$. In this case we have to consider all valuations in order to assert that it holds or not :
Specifically for propositional variables $P$ and $Q$, we can never have $P \vDash Q$, exactly because we have the valuation $v$ such that :
We have to take care in using the expression : $(P → Q) ∧ P \vDash (P \vDash Q)$, because it is not meaningful.
It is not a formula of the language (because $\vDash$ is not part of the object language) and thus we cannot evaluate it with truth tables.
We can write an expression of the meta-language like :
As said above, if $P$ and $Q$ are propositional variables, then $P \vDash Q$ is false.
Thus, an example of true statement (in the meta-language) involving it will be :