The question I faced was:
Let $f(x)$ be a non-negative continuous and bounded function for all $x \ge 0$. If
$$(\cos x)f'(x) \le (\sin x - \cos x)f(x), \; \forall \; x \ge 0$$ then which of the following is/are correct?(A) $f(6) + f(5) > 0$
(B) $x^2 - 3x + 2 + f(9) = 0$ has two distinct solutions
(C) $f(5)f(7) - f(6)f(5) = 0$
(D) $\lim\limits_{x \to 4} \dfrac{f(x) - \sin(\pi x)}{x-4} = 1$
The answer is:
(B), (C)
By observation, $f(x)=0$ satisfies the given conditions. But is it the only solution? If so, how to prove it is?
After rearranging the terms and combining them, I converted the inequality to this form: $$ \left( f(x)\,\cos x \right)' + f(x)\,\cos x \le 0 $$ Despite its allure, this inequality isn't getting me anywhere! It doesn't seem to have any information about $f(x)$, since it is stuck with a "$\cos x$". Even then, I don't see where I can go with it.
So how to solve this problem? Thank you.
We assume that $f(x)$ is bounded and non-negative, for $x \geqslant 0$. This means that there is a non-negative function $g(x)$ with the property that $f(x) = g(x)e^{-x}$ for $x \geqslant 0$.
Plugging this into the inequality you found gives, \begin{equation} 0 \geqslant (f(x)\cos (x))' + f(x) \cos (x) = e^{-x} (g(x) \cos(x))'. \end{equation} And since $e^{-x} > 0$, we have \begin{equation} 0 \geqslant (g(x) \cos(x))'. \end{equation} This means that the function $g(x) \cos(x)$ is weakly decreasing. Because any point $x \in \mathbb{R}$ is between two zeroes of $\cos(x)$, we have that $g(x) \cos(x) = 0$ for all $x$.