I found out that the sum $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac {(2n+1)!} {2^{3n} \; (n!)^2}$$ converges to $2\sqrt{2}$.
But right now I don't have enough time to figure out how to solve this. I would really appreciate any help. Just one tiny hint might help too.
Hint: Observe that (by the binomial theorem for instance) $$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac {(2n)!} {(n!)^2}x^{2n}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-4x^2}}, \quad |x|<\frac{1}{2}. $$ Then multiply by $x$ and perform a termwise differentiation and you readily obtain the desired result with $x^2=\dfrac{1}{2^3}.$