I am trying to prove an equivalence.
I have already proved that:
$$x^2 + x < 0 \implies -1 < x < 0 $$
using a sub-proof by cases, in which I used the fact that when $xy < 0$, $x$ and $y$ have opposite signs. So I just factored the expression and went from there.
However, I can't seem to find an appropriate way of proving the second implication?
$$-1 < x < 0 \implies x^2 + x < 0$$
Answer:
I solved it by determining that x + 1 > 0, then since x < 0, (x)( x + 1 ) < 0 , then $x^2$ + x < 0
Hint: $(x+1)>0$, and multiplying an inequality by a positive number doesn't change the inequality arrows.