Let $V$ a finite vector space and $V^{\ast}$ its dual.
Let $g : V\times V^{\ast} \to \mathcal{L}(V,V)$ a bilinear map defined as follows:
$$g(v,f)(w) := f(w)v.$$
To show that the map $$\phi(v\otimes f) = g(v,f)$$ is injective, why have I to show that $\sum_{i}g(v_i,f_i) = 0 \Rightarrow \sum v_i\otimes f_i = 0?$
You have to because it shows $\ker\phi=0$. Indeed, by linearity, for a general tensor $$\phi\bigl(\sum_i v_i\otimes f_i\bigl)=\sum_i\phi(v_i\otimes f_i)\stackrel{\text{def}}{=}\sum_i g(v_i,f_i),$$ so that $$\sum_\limits ig(v_i,f_i)=0\iff \sum_i(v_i\otimes f_i)\in\ker\phi.$$