matrix $A\in\mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$, the following equality holds,
$\lambda_{max}\left(\begin{bmatrix}A\cdot A^T &A\\A^T & I\end{bmatrix}\right)=\lambda_{max}(A\cdot A^T)+1$, where $I$ is the identity matrix, $\lambda_{max} (\cdot)$ is the defined as the maximum eigenvalue of a matrix.
It seems like correct, but I do not know how to prove that?
In fact, the eigenvalues of $M=\begin{bmatrix}A\cdot A^T &A\\A^T & I\end{bmatrix}$ come in pairs, one of which is zero and the other of which is precisely $1$ more than the corresponding eigenvalue of $=A\cdot A^T$.
To show this, start by showing it for $A$ diagonal; that is pretty easy if you write the eigenvector of $M$ as $$ \pmatrix{x_1\\x_2\\ \vdots\\ x_n \\ y_1\\y_2\\ \vdots \\y_n } $$ because for a given eigenvalue $d_k$ (of $A$) and an eigenvalue $\lambda_k$ (of $M$), you have $$ \left. \begin{array}{c}d_k^2 x_k + d_k y_k = \lambda_kx_k\\ d_k x_k + y_k =\lambda_k y_k\end{array}\right\} \implies x_k=d_ky_k \\ d_k^3 y_k + d_k y_k = \lambda_k d_k y_k \implies \lambda_k = d_k^2+1 $$ This shows that when $A$ is diagonal the eigenvalues are as stated above or zero.
Next show that if $A = P^{-1}DP$ then $M(A)$ is just a similarity transformation acting on $M(D)$. (Hint: The transformation matrix has blocks looking like $P$ and P^{-1}=P^T.) Thus it has the same eigenvalue spectrum; and also $AA^T$ has the same eignevalue spectrum as $D^2$.
Combining these gives the desired theorem.