I can see why it is true by writing out some examples, but I'm not sure how one could prove that, with $\left({\cdot\over p}\right)$ as the mod $p$ Legendre symbol
$$\sum_{x=1}^{p-1} \left(\frac{x(x-1)}{p}\right)=-1$$
For example, for $p=5$
$(2/5)+(1/5)+(2/5)=-1$
But could it be shown just from the sum itself?
Every $x\in[1,p-1]$ is invertible $\!\!\pmod{p}$ and if we denote with $x^{-1}$ its inverse we have:
$$ \sum_{x=1}^{p-1}\left(\frac{x(x-1)}{p}\right) = \sum_{x=1}^{p-1}\left(\frac{x^{-1}}{p}\right)\left(\frac{x-1}{p}\right) = \sum_{x=1}^{p-1}\left(\frac{1-x^{-1}}{p}\right)=\sum_{y=1}^{p-1}\left(\frac{1-y}{p}\right) $$ that is just $$ \left(\frac{0}{p}\right)+\sum_{z=2}^{p-1}\left(\frac{z}{p}\right) = -\left(\frac{1}{p}\right)+\sum_{z=1}^{p-1}\left(\frac{z}{p}\right) = -1 $$ as wanted.